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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

15.06.2025 14:47

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Can you fly an American flag in the UK in your own private property there? What is the UK’s government stance on that? And if yes, do you also have to fly the UK flag or the American flag can fly solo?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.